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Saturday, March 15, 2008


(B.Tech 5th Semester,2052)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 60
NOTE:- This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 20

1(a) What are the major differences between a file processing system and a DBMS ?
(b) Explain the difference between Physical and Logical Data Independence.
(c) Wha tare the main functions of a data base administrator ?
(d) Explain the difference between a weak and strong entity set.
(e) Define the concept of Aggegation with the help of example.
(f) Describe the difference between Relation nad Relation scheme.
(g) What are the main advantages of Distributed database ?
(h) What are the various types of locks available to Control Concurrency ?
(i) What do you understand by Serializable Schedule ?
(j) Why are three types of data Decription needed?

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. Explain why 4 NF as a normal form more desirable than BCNF with the help of example.
3. Explain the term DML with the help of suitable example.
4. Discuss the Secuirty Model to provide Authorization to various Authenticated Users.
5. What are triggers ? How can they help in bulding Robust Database?
6. Discuss various Data Recovery Techniques in brief.

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. Explain Merge-Join Algrothim with the help of suitable example.
8. Consider the following Relational Database:
Empolee (EMP_Name, Street, City)
Works(EMP_Name, Company_Name, Salary)
Company(Comapny_Name, City)
Manages (EMP_Name,Manager_Name)
For each of the following quires, give an expression in the Relational Algebra, Tuple Realtional Calculus.
(a) Find the names of all Employees who work for Satyam.
(b) Find the names and cities of Residence who work for Satyam.
(c) Find the names of all Employees who live in the same city as the company for which they work.
(d) Find the names of all Employees who do not work for Satyam.
(e) Find the names of all Employees who live in the same city and on the same street as do their Managers.
9. Writ short note on the following:
(a) 4 GL's forms Management and Report Writers.
(b) Object Oriented Databases.


(B.Tech 5th Semester,2121)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 60
This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 20

1(a) Differentiate between the following:
(i) Instruction, M/c and clock cycles.
(ii) Assembler and compiler
(iii) Object and source Programs
(iv) op--c-ode and operand
(v) ROM and RAM
(vi) Hardware and Software interrupts
(b) Explain the functions of ALE and IO/M signals of the 8085 microprocessor.
(c) What is stack and explain how it operates ?
(d) What is the difference between 8085 JMP and call instructions ?
(e) Explain the use of subroutines. What should be the salient features of a good subroutine ?

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. Draw the block diagram showing the architecture of 8085 microprocessor. Explain the function of its organs.
3. what is the need of knowing so many addressing modes of 8086 ? Explain the various modes in detail. Discuss their applications.
4. Explain the architecture of Motrola 68000 microprocessor.
5. Explain the architecture of a keyboard with an 8086 microprocessor.
6. (a) State the advantages of segmention(memory) in 8086 based system.
(b) With the help of examples, illustrate the use and the meaning of the following instructions:

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. Discuss the comparison of the important characteristics of intel 8 bit, 16 bit and 32 bit microprocessors.
8. For an 8086, write an assembly language program:
(a) To find the largest of 12 unsigned bytes.
(b) To compare two strings stored in memory locations starting from STR1 and STR2 each 100 bytes long. The program should branch to an ERROR subroutine in case of mismatch.
9. Write short notes on any two of the following:
(a) Interrupt system of 8085
(b) I/O data transfer techniques
(c) Parallel v/s serial transmission
(d) 8089 Processor

Industrial Electronics B.Tech EC 5th Semester 2003

Industrial Electronics
(B.Tech 5th Semester, 2063)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 60
This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 20

1 (a) Differentiate between core type and core less induction furnace.
(b) Describe briefly various sources of generating high frequency for induction heating.
(c) Elucidate UJT triggering circuit for SCR.
(d) Draw switching characteristics of the power MOSFET and define different time intervals.
(e) Discuss the suitability of the polyphase rectifier compared to the single-phase rectifier in relation to
rectifier voltage and ripple factor.
(f) Discuss the force-commutated inverter in brief.
(g) Explain John's chopper with necessary waveform.
(h) indicate with a neat sketch, a closed loop control scheme for controlling the speed of a DC motor.
(i) Briefly explain the control scheme of commulator less DC motor.
(j) Compare the features of buck, boost and buck boost regulator.

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. The power input to the charge in a half-ton, 960 Hz induction furnace having a 20 turns on the primary
winding is 325 kW. The cylindrical crucible has an internal diameter of 45 cm and the depth of the charge
in it is 50 cm. Determine the equivalent resistance of charge and the current in the primary winding whiuch is
required to counter balance the mmf due to secondary current.
3. Explain the operation of Cuk converter with neat circuit diagram. Also mark the direction of different current
and polarity.
4. A 3-phase full convertor charges a battery from a 3-phase supply of 230 V, 50 Hz. The battery emf is 200 V
and its internal resistance os 0.5 ohm. On account of inductance connected in series with the battery, charging
current is constant at 20 A. Compute the firing angle delay and the supply power factor.
5. A 440 V, 50 Hz, 6-pole, Y-connected wound rotor motor has the following parameters:
Rs=0.5 ohm, R'r = 0.4 ohm, Xs = X'r = 1.2 ohm. Stator to rotor resistance is 3.5. Motor is controlled by static
rotor resistance control. External resistance is chosen such that the breakdown torque is produced at standstill
for a duty ratio of zero. Calculate the value of external resistance. How duty ratio should be varied with speed so
that the motor accelerates at maximum torque.
6. Elucidate the operation of class E commutation by drawing neat schematic diagram. Also draw the required

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. The single-phase half bridge thyristorized invertor has a resistive load of R = 2.4 ohm and the dc input total voltage
(total) is 48 V. Determine :
(a) The rms output value at the fundamental frequency V1
(b) The output power Po
(c) The average and peak current of each thyristor
(d) The peak reverse voltage of each thyristor
(e) The total harmonic distortion THD
(f) the distortion factor
(g) The harmonic factor and distortion of the lowest order harmonic.
8.(a) Elucidate different modulation techniques used for inverter control.
(b) Describe any one method to reduce harmonic content in the output of inverter with mathematical support.
9.(a) Enumerate various advantages of cycloconvertor. Draw the schematic diagrams of 3-phase to 1-phase using 6 thyristors and 3-phase to 3-phase.
(b) Derive the general output voltage equation of cycloconvertor.


EC 303 B Tech 5th Sem
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and any Two questions from Section C. Assume any data if not given.

Section A Marks 2 each

(a) What are the main differences between p-n junction diodes and Schotty diodes?
(b) What is an off-state condition of thyristors?
(c) What would be the ripple frequency in six-phase full wave rectifier.
(d)Why is it necessary to remove harmonics from output of an inverter?
(e) What is cycloconverter?
(f) Enumerate industrial applications of cycloconverter.
(g) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of a multiphase chopper.
(h) How is chopper useful for controlling the speed of D.C. devices?
(i) Explain two factors on which the load voltage of a D.C. chopper circuit depends.
(j) What is basic principle of a switched mode power supply?

Section B (Marks 5 each)

2. Draw and explain the connection of a three phase full half controlled rectifier bridge.

3. Explain with the help of a diagram working principle of McMurray Bedford inverter circuit.

4. A series inverter circuit has an inductor of 10 mH, a capacitor of 47 mF connected in series with load resistance of 5 ohm. Determine the resonant frequency and time period of oscillations.
A single phase full converter is used to control the speed of a 7.5 kW, 220 V, 1800 rpm separately excited D.C. motor. The armature resistance is 0.25 ohm and the rated armature current is 20 A. The ac voltage is 250 V. The motor voltage constant is Kaf = 0.278 v/radian/min. For a firing angle a = 30o and rated motor current, determine:

(a) The speed of the motor
(b) Motor torque.

Assume continuous and ripple free armature current.

6. Discuss the principle of stator voltage control of induction motor and how it is achieved.

Section C (Marks 10 each)

7. Draw the circuit diagram of Jones chopper. Explain its operation with particular emphasis on the commutation process.

8. Show that the fundamental rms value of per phase output voltage of low frequency for m pulse cycloconverter is given by:

Express Vor in terms of voltage reduction factor.

9. Write short notes on ay two of the following:
(a) Power MOSFETs
(b) Commutator less d.c. motor
(c) Switched mode power supplies.


EC 422 B Tech 8th Sem May 2005


Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions each carrying 5 marks from section B and any two each carrying 10 marks from section C.

Section A (10 x 2 = 20)


1. How is light guided through optical fibres?
2. What are optical fibres immune to?
3. How is characteristic value for the fibre and the attenuation of optical fibres related?
4. What is dispersion?
5. List the components of optical fibre communication
6. What is a step-index multimode fibre?
7. Which type of fibre has the highest modal dispersion?
8. How is light emission from an LED modulated?
9. What is a pin photodiode?
10. Define fibre refractive index.

Section B (4 x 5 = 20)

2. Discuss the Electromagnetic mode theory for optical propagation.

3. Explain the measurement procedure for Fibre attenuation and fibre diameter.

4. Discuss the modulation of laser diodes.

5. Describe the principles of optical detection.

6. Explain the optical transmitter circuit.

Section C (2 x 10 = 20)

7. Describe with examples the various types of losses in optical fibre transmission.

8. Discuss the LED structure, characteristics, efficiency and modulation process.

9. Write notes on:
(a) Photodiode materials
(b) Optical receiver circuit


B.Tech 5th Semester, 2052

This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 20

1(a) Discuss the digital and analog types of communication.
(b) Differentiate between Synchronous and Asynchronous types of Communications.
(c) Discuss the mechanism of microwave transmission.
(d) List the features of Coaxial Cables.
(e) Discuss the concept of messange Switching.
(f) What are the merits of Ring Topology ?
(g) What are the different types of services provided by data link Layer to Network layer ?
(h) Discuss the significance of IEEE standards.
(i) What is meant by TDM technique ?
(j) Discuss the role of IP protocol.

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. Discuss the characteristics of different types of communication channels available for transmission.
3. Discuss the working of CSMA/CD protocol in detail.
4. Describe the procedure of framing and error control by Data Link Layer.
5. Explain the working of Network and transport layer of OSI reference model.
6. Discuss the term internet working. What are the different components to create an internet ?

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. Compare the working of different layers of OSI model with TCP/IP reference model.
8. Describe the message formats, message headers and e-mail gateways associated with e-mail transmission.
9. Comapre the different network topologies in detail.


B.Tech 6th & 7th Semester,2122
This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 10 * 2= 20

1(a) What is the difference between Vol-Neumann and Harvard Architeture?
(b) FIR filter has linear phase response. What are its implications?
(c) Why is it necessary to define ROC with every z-transform?
(d) What are basic elements of Digital Signal Processing?
(e) List the major applications of Digital Signal Processing.
(f) Compare the performance of FIR anmd IIR filters.
(g) What is Gibb's phenomenon ?
(h) Distinguish between decimation in time and decimation in frequency FFT algorithms.
(i) Determine the z-transform of the following signal and sketch the pole-zero pattern :
x(n) = (-1)n.(2)-n.u(n).
(j) Determine the region of convergence of two sided infinte duration signals.

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. Determine the z-transform and ROC of the signal:
x(n) = [3{2n)-4(3n)] u(n).
3. Why is it said that limit cycle problem does not exist in FIR digital filters realizations ?
4. What are the advantages of digital signal over analog signal processing ? Are there any limitations ?
5. What is bilinear transformation ? What is the relation between digital frequency and analog frequency ? Is this linear?
6. Show that for LtI discrete-time system to stable, all the poles should lie within the unit circle.

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. What are the various methods used for the design of FIR filters? Discuss window method in detail.
8. (a) What are the steps involved in the design of IIR filters ? Discuss impulse invariant method.
(b) Explain how the DFT can be used to compute N equispaced samples of the z-transform of an N-point on
a circle of radius r.
9. Write short notes on any tow of the following:
(a) Properties of DFT
(b) Architecture of Digital Signal Processing
(c)Structure for the realization of discrete time systems.


EC 304 6th Sem May 2005


Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and any Two questions from section C. Give examples wherever possible. Define explicitly the notations used.

Section A Marks: 2 each

(a) Differentiate with the help of neat diagram between sampling and quantization.
(b) What is a band limited signal?
(c) Explain the term ‘Nyquist interval’.
(d) If the amplitudes of a signal m(t) is confined to the range of (-mp, mp) and the range is divided into L zones, each of step size ?, find out the expression for quantization noise.
(e) Draw the waveforms of an unmodulated carrier, data, ASK, PSK and FSK.
(f) State the advantages of DPSK and PSK.
(g) Sketch the QPSK waveform for the sequences 1101010010 assuming the carrier frequency to be equal to the bit rate.
(h) What is a spread spectrum modulation? Discuss briefly.
(i) What do you understand by paging? What are the different components of a paging system?
(j) List the different error control and detection techniques in a computer network. What do you understand by ARQ?

Section B Marks: 5 each

2. Explain the receiver for the detection of DPSK signals.

3. Illustrate with the help of a neat diagram the phase relationship between symbols intervals of two users of a CDMA system.

4. Given the signal m(t)= 10* cos 200* ?* t cos* 800* ?* t. What is the minimum sampling rate based on:

(a) The low pass uniform sampling theorem.
(b) Band pass sampling theorem.

5. In a binary PCM system, the output signal-to-quantizing-noise ratio is to be held to a minimum of 40 dB. Determine the number of required levels and find the corresponding output signal-to-quantizing-noise ratio.

6. What are the different elements of switching? Discuss cellular digital switching requirement.

Section C Marks: 10 each

7. Explain the following types of computer communication networks with proper diagram wherever applicable:

8. (a) Consider an audio signal comprised of the sinusoidal term

s(t) = 3* cos* 500* ?* t
(i) Find the signal to quantization noise ratio when this is quantized using 10-bit PCM.
(ii) How many bits of quantization are needed to achieve a signal to quantization noise ratio at least 40 dB?
(b) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the following signaling formats:
(i) Unipolar NRZ
(ii) Bipolar RZ
(iii) Alternate mask inversion RZ

9 (a) Find the bit error probability for a BPSK system with a bit rate fo 1 Mbit/s. The received waveforms s1(t) = A cos wot are coherently detected with a matched filter. The value of a is 10 mV. Assume that the single-sided noise power spectral density is No= 10-11 W/Hz and that signal power and energy per bit are normalized relative to a 1 ohm load.
(b) Derive the expression for the throughput of Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)


(B.Tech 6th/7th Semester, 2121)


Max Marks 60

Time 3 Hours

This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 10 * 2=20

1(a) Enlist the factors that determine the detection range of a radar.
(b) State the Doppler effect. HOw is it used for radar applications?
(c) Sketch the block diagram of FM-CH radar.
(d) What is staggered PRF? Explain.
(e) How does an active electronic counter measure reduce the detection range of a radar?
(f) What are the possible errors in direction finding in radar systems? Explain.
(g) Give the different acquisition search patterns for tracking radar.
(h) Explain the pulse comparison mono pulse technique for tracking.
(i) Enlist the characteristics features of an actual radar systems.
(j) How does integration of radar pulses improve the detection performance of a radar? Explain.

Section-B Marks:5 Each

2. Consider an S-band pulsed radar with the following parameters:
Peak transmitted power = 300kW.
Pulse width = 1 user.
PRF = 600Hz.
Antenna radius = 6ft.
Transmitted frequency = 3000MHz.
Transmit loss = 6dB.
Antenna efficiency = 0.95
Calculate the maximum signal power at the range of 50 nauticals miles.
3. An altimeter using FM has a modulation frequency of 200 Hz. and a frequency excursion of 60 MHz. Calculate the
modulation slope which will result in a range quantization of 10 KM.
4. Consider a radar with multiple PRF ranging using f1 = 13.770 kHz and f2 = 14.580 kHz. Calculate the need of multiple PRF.
5. Write a brief technical note on an actual radar system.
6. What are Electronic Counter Measures? Describe a typical adopted for this measure.

Section-C Marks : 10 Each

7. With the help of a block diagram, explain the working of a conical scan tracking radar.
8. Discuss the blind speed situation in an MTI radar. Derive the formula for blind speeds for the case of a single delay
line canceles. In a five pulse stragger (four periods) in a long range airtraffic control radar, the periods are in the ratio
25 : 30 : 27 : 31. How many times the first blind speed would became as compared to that of a constant PRF waveform
with the same average period.
9. Discuss instrument landing System in detail.


Maximum Marks: 60
Time: 03 Hours
Instruction to Candidates:

1) Section -:- A is compulsory.
2) Attempt any Four questions from Section - B.
3) Attempt any Two questions from Section - C.

(10 * 2 =20)
Section - A

a)What is an addressing mode? What is the use of addressing mode techniques in the computer?
b)How many 128 x4 RAM chips are needed to provide a'memory of 4096 bytes? How many address lines are needed to access 4096 bytes of memory? .
c)What are the characteristics of a RISC processor?
d)Write the boolean junction function to generate an overflow for two's complement arithmatic logic unit.
e)Distin'guish between primary and secondary memory.
f)What is an interrupt?
g)List and differentiate any two types of interrupts.
h)Explain briefly DMA mode of data transfer.
Why is handshaking required between a CPU and I/O device?
i)What do you understand by instruction format?
j)List the function of ALU.

Section - B
(5 * 4=20)

Q2) Explain SIM & RIM instructions of 8085.
Q3) If the stack pointer is initialized to 7 FFF H and after pushing BC pair and DE .
pair on to stack, show the contents of stack assuming BC = 2233 Hand
DE = 4455 H.
Q4) Draw a block diagram of a control unit. ExplaiI1 its operation.
Q5) Explain string handling of 8086.
Q6) Draw and explain the block diagram of 8086 microprocessor for maximum
mode of operation.

Section - C
(10 *2=20)

Q7) Explain the various address modes of 8086 with examples. Explain how the
queue seeded up the process operation in 8086.
Q8) Explain the functional aspects of 8251 USARTchip with a neat block diagram. Explain how do you make use of 8251 to interface CRT data terminal to 8085 CPU.
Q9) Draw the block diagram of 8259 PIC. Discuss the advantages and.
disadvantages of Segmentation of memory in 8086.


EC 305 5th Sem


Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 hours
: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from section B and two from Section C.

Section A Marks 2 each

(a) Explain the difference between constant current bias and current mirror.
(b) What is the difference between a basic comparator and Schmitt trigger?
(c) Explain the difference between digital and linear ICs.
(d) Show how a non-inverting amplifier can be made to operate as voltage follower.
(e) Define input offset voltage and CMRR for an OP-AMP.
(f) What are advantages of adjustable voltage regulator over fixed voltage regulator?
(g) Define break frequency and bandwidth.
(h) Explain the difference between integrator and differentiator and give one application of each.
(i) What is VCO? Give tow applications that require VCO.
(j) What is voltage limiting and why is it needed?

Section B Marks 5 each

2. An emitter based dual input, balanced output differential amplifier has the following specifications: Vcc = -VEE = 10 V. R¬c1=Rc¬2 = 2.7 kilo ohm and RE= 3.9 kilo ohm, ?ac=?dc=100, VBE = 0.715 V. Calculate:
(a) Operating current and voltage for each transistor.
(b) Voltage gain

3. Define all parameters that are used to specify an OP-AMP. List their significance.

4. Draw block diagram of IC555 and explain its working.

5. Give a theoretical method to obtain the frequency curve of an operational amplifier if the poles and zeros are not given.

6. In a triangular wave generator R2=1.2 kilo ohm,R3=6.8 kilo ohm, R1 = 120 kilo ohm, c1=0.01 micro f.
(a) Peak to peak output amplitude of triangular wave.
(b)Frequency of triangular wave.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. What is PLL? Explain its operating principle with the help of a block diagram. Describe the function of each block in detail in block diagram. Discuss at least tow applications of PLL. 1,2,3,4

8. (a) What are switching regulators? Describe theory of switching regulators.
(b) An on-inverting zero crossing detector uses OP-AMP micro A with an open loop gain of 92 dB. If the power supply voltage are + 15 V and input offset 0 V:

(i) find the input voltage range that causes the output voltage to slew between the power supply rates.
(ii) if a 1 mV sin wave is on the input, draw the output waveform in time synchronization with input waveform.

9 (a) An inverting voltage comparator uses an OP-AMP with saturation voltages of + 12 V, R1=2 k ohm, RF=390 k ohm. The reference voltage is -3V. Determine two voltages at which the comparator will switch.
(b) Describe differential mode Instrumentation Amplifier. Find its output.


EC 303 B Tech 5th Sem May 2007


Instructions to Candidates:

(1) Section A is compulsory.
(2) Attempt any Four questions from Section B
(3) Attempt any Two questions from Section C

Section A
( 10 x 2 =20)


(a) Draw the charge and current distribution on a linear antenna. Draw how this antenna radiates.
(b) Draw the tow dimensional top view and side view of omni directional and isotropic radiation pattern.
(c) What is radiation resistance of an antenna? Write expression for the radiation resistance of a dipole antenna.
(d) What is array factor and write the expression for a planar array factor?
(e) A rectangular aperture with a constant field distribution, with a = 3l and b = 2 l, is mounted on an infinite ground plane. Compute FNBW and HPBW in the E-Plane.
(f) What is the difference between the directivity of rectangular and circular aperture on ground plane?
(g) What is Babinet’s principle?
(h)Define Troposphere scattering.
(i) What is critical frequency and write expression for the critical fr3quency in terms of ionization density?
(j) Differentiate between deviative and nondeviative absorption.

Section B
( 4 x 5 =20)

2. What is potential function and using Heuristic approach derive the expression for the retarded potential of a current carrying element?

3. The maximum radiation intensity of a 90% efficiency antenna is 200 mW/ unit solid angle. Find the directivity and gain (dimensionless and in dB) when the :
(a) input power is 125.66 mW
(b) output power is 125.66 mW

4. Derive the expression for the total field for a linear array of n isotropic point sources of equal amplitude and spacing.

5. Draw the electron density profile of ionosphere and explain the phenomenon of reflection from different ionospheric layers.

6. If a small square loop is considered equivalent to 4 short dipoles, calculate the far field pattern. Show that the pattern in the plane of the loop is circle.

Section C
( 2 x 10 =20)

7. A half wave dipole radiator is elevated 100ft above the ground. A receiving dipole 3 miles distant is elevated 30 ft. Determine the space and surface wave field strengths at the receiving antenna when the transmitting antenna carries a current of 1 ampere at a frequency of 50 MHz. assuming an average earth having er=15 and s= 5 x 103.
(a) for vertical half wave dipole and
(b) for horizontal half wave dipole.

8. Describe the working of monopole and half wave dipole. Derive the field expressions for both of these antennas.

9. What are different types of arrays? Derive the expression for the directivity of an n element broadside linear array.


ECE 305 5TH Sem May 2005


Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C.

Section A Marks 2 each


(a) What do you mean by antenna tuning?
(b) How do you distinguish between “near zone” and “far zone” of an antenna?
(c) How does an antenna radiate electromagnetic energy?
(d) What do you mean by elliptical polarization?
(e) How do you define an impedance of an antenna?
(f) What is folded dipole?
(g) What do you mean by parasitic elements?
(h) What is maximum usable frequency?
(i) What is optimum traffic frequency?
(j) What is the effect of fading on signal strength?

Section B Marks 5 each

2. Find out the phase difference between the direct and reflected rays in space wave propagation.
3. Write notes on any one of the following:
(a) Duct propagation
(b) Whip Antennas.

4. What is paraboloid antenna? Derive an expression for its gain.

5. Compute the radiation resistance, the power radiated and efficiency of an antenna having total resistance of 50 ohms, an effective height of 60.96 meters and current of 50 A (r.m.s.) at 0.480 MHz.

6. An antenna has radiation resistance and loss resistance of 72 O and 8 O respectively. Calculate its directivity given that its power gain is 17.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. Show that radiation field electric intensity of quarterwave monopole is:

Eq=60Im/r {[cos(p/2 cos q)]/sin q} V/m

8. Derive an expression for radiation pattern of broad side, uniform, linear array of 4 equally spaced (l/2) isotropic antenna. Calculate the width of its major lobe between first null and draw its pattern.

9. Radio waves projected towards the atmosphere do not return if the frequency is raised above a particular frequency which also changes with the angle of projection. Explain.


251 B. TECH. ME 6th Sem. JUN/2005
Max Marks 60

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions each carrying 5 marks from section B and any two each carrying 10 marks from section C.

Section A (10 x 2 = 20)

a) Discuss the concept of TQM.
b) What are the objectives of TWM?
c) Discuss salient features of TQC,
d) Distinguish between TQM and ISO 9000.
e) What are dimensions of quality?
f) What is JIT?
g) What do you understand by Kanban?
h) What is quality circle?
i) What are quality system?
j) What is Documentation?

Section B (4 x 5 = 20)

2. How would you convince your ECO for implementing ISO 9000 in our company?

3. Define benchmarking. What are different types of benchmarking?

4. Discuss the benefits of TQM.

5. How does JIT help the manufacturing system to improve productivity? Explain.

6. What is empowerment? What effort can e made to empower individual employee and their groups in an organization?

Section C (2 x 10 = 20)

7. Compare and contrast JIT and MRP. Which is more suited to Indian companies?

8. Discuss the factors affecting process management.

9. Write notes on the following:
(a) Quality Assurance System
(b) Taguchi methods.


EC 301 5th Sem May 2005
Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C. Assume any missing data.

Section A Marks 2 each


1. Describe the differences between low and high level modulation.
2. For a modulation coefficient of 0.4 and carrier power of 400 W, determine total side-band and transmitted power.
3. Describe three point tracking.
4. What is the purpose of a squelch circuit?
5. What is the difference between coherent and non-coherent receiver?
6. Define modulation index for FM and PM.
7. Describe the significance of FM noise triangle.
8. Describe basic difference between AM and FM services.
9. What is the purpose of 19 kHz plot in FM stereo-broadcasting?
10. Describe sampling theorem.

Section B Marks 5 each

2. What is the difference between low and level modulation? Draw circuit diagram of low level modulator and explain its function.

3. Describe the operation of a filter type SSB transmitter with the help of block diagram.

4. One output to an AM DSFBC modulator is an 800 kHz carrier with an amplitude of 40 Vp. The second input is a 25 kHz modulating signal whose amplitude is sufficient to produce a + 10 V change in the amplitude of the envelope. Calculate:

1. Upper and lower side band frequencies.
2. Modulation coefficient and percentage modulation.
3. Maximum and minimum positive amplitude of the envelope.
4. Draw output frequency spectrum
5. Draw the envelope and label it .

5. The mutual conductance of an FET varies linearly with gate voltage between the limits 0 to 9 ms. The FET is used as a capacitive reactance modulator with Xcgd =10. Rgs is placed across an oscillator circuit which is tuned to 50 MHz by a 50 pF capacitor. What will be the total frequency variation when trans-conductance of FET is varied from zero to maximum by modulating voltage?

6. Draw the circuit diagram of Foster Seeley discriminator.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. (a) What is difference between pulse modulation, frequency modulation and amplitude modulation.
(b) Define and describe pulse position modulation and explain wit the help of waveforms how it is derived from PWM?
(c) Explain pulse position demodulator. 3,4,3

8. (a) Explain the working of product demodulator with the help of diagram.
(b) With the help of block diagram explain the working of SSB Pilot Carrier Receiver.

9 (a) A 25 MHz carrier is modulated by 400 Hz audio sine wave. If the carrier voltage is 4 and the maximum duration is 10 kHz, write the equation of this modulated wave for: (i) FM (ii) PM
If the modulating frequency is now changed to 2 kHz, all else remaining constant write new equation for (i) FM (ii) PM
(b) Describe the FM generation using PLL (Phase Locked Loop)


(EC 301) 5th Sem. May 2007


Instructions to Candidates:

(1) Section A is compulsory.
(2) Attempt any Four questions from Section B
(3)Attempt any Two questions from Section C

Section A
( 10 x 2 =20)


(a) Explain the need of modulation?
(b) A single tone modulating signal f(f) = Em cos wmt; frequency modulates a carrier A cos wct. Find the frequency deviation.
(c) Explain capture effect and threshold effect in FM.
(d) Compare FM and AM from the noise performance point of view.
(e) What is a limited and why is it used.
(f) What are the advantages of obtaining AM by method of power conversion?
(g) Explain how PAM signals are defected using holding circuit.
(h) Show that coherent FSK is 3 db inferior to coherent PKS system.
(i) Draw the wave forms for PSK modulated signal for the binary signal 1010.
(j) What are the advantages of pulse modulation over continuous wave modulation?

Section B
( 4 x 5 =20)

2. Explain with necessary equations and a neat block diagram, the coherent detection of SSB signals.

3. The modulating signal, m(t) = 5 cos p t frequency modulates a carrier, c(t) = 10 cos 108t using a modulator of frequency sensitivity, 10 kHz/ volt. Find the modulation index and approximate bandwidth of the FM signal.

4. Derive the time domain expression of a single tone frequency modulated signal.

5. State and prove sampling theorem for low pass signals.

6. Draw and explain PWM modulator and demodulator circuit.

Section C
( 2 x 10 =20)

7. A narrow band FM has no amplitude variation, inspite of the fact that it has the same frequency components as AM. Justify the statement with phasor diagram.

8. A single tone modulating signal Em cos wmt frequency modulates a carrier A cos wcr. Show that:
(a) The detector output signal to noise ratio is proportional to the square of bandwidth of fM signal.
(b) The figure of merit is given by fm=(3/2) m2f.

9. Write notes on the following:
(a) Single side band BFO receivers
(b) AM detector with AGC
(c) Flat-top PAM.


EC 208 4th Sem. May 2005

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C

1.Section A 2 marks each

1. What is permeability?
2. What is attenuation constant?
3. What is EM wave?
4. What do you understand by waveguide?
5. State the significance of Maxwell’s equations.
6. State the significance of permittivity.
7. What is transmission line?
8. State the importance of impedance matching in transmission lines.
9. Explain briefly the magnetic flux density, B.

Section B Marks 5 each

2. Write and state different forms of Maxwell’s equations.

3. What do you understand by the terms phase velocity and group velocity as applicable to Plane Electromagnetic Waves?

4. A transmission line of length 5 m is tested at a frequency of 20 MHz. When the far end of the line is short circuited, the impedance measured at the sending end is 4.61 ohms resistive and when the far end is open circuited, the impedance becomes 1390 ohms resistive. Calculate the characteristics impedance of the line, attenuation constant in dm/m, the velocity of propagation and permittivity of the dielectric.

5. What do you understand by the term wave guide, guided wave, transmission line, wave impedance and characteristic impedance?

6. Show that the electric and magnetic energy densities in a plane traveling wave are equal.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. What are waveguides? What is the fundamental difference propagation in waveguides and propagation in transmission lines of free space? Compare the practical advantages and disadvantages of circular waveguide with those of rectangular waveguides.

8. (a) Starting with Faraday’s law, derive Maxwell’s equations in integral form based on this law.
(b) A plane Travelling wave in free space has an average Poynthing vector of 1 W/m2. Find the average energy density.
9. (a) What are the losses in transmission lines? Explain the circuit representation of the parallel plane transmission line with loss.
(b) Calculate the velocity of electromagnetic wave in a medium whose dielectric constant


EC 202 4th Sem May 2005

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and any Two questions from section C.

Section A Marks: 2 each

(a) Determine whether or not, the following signal is periodic
x(t) = 2 ej(t+?/2) u(t)
(b) What are random variables.
(c) Define mean Ergodicity.
(d) When is a random process said to be stationary?
(e) Write does the mathematical equation for Gaussian pdf?
(f) Define signal to noise ratio.
(g) Write down the units of noise figure.
(h) What is impulse response of a matched filter?
(i) Under what conditions an envelope detector fails to allow the envelope?
(j) Define transfer function of a system.

Section B Marks: 5 each

2. Prove time-shifting property of continuous-time Fourier series.

3. Explain Gaussian probability density function.

4. Let x(t) have the Fourier transform x(j w), and let p(t) be periodic with fundamental frequency wo and Fourier series representation:

Determine an expression for the Fourier transform of :
y(t) = x(t) .p(t)

5. Find the power spectral density function of:
x(t) = cos 10 ?t + cos 20 ?t
Also sketch the power spectral density function.

6. Discuss Ergodicity in detail.

Section C Marks: 10 each

7. Derive the mean and variance of the exponential distribution directly from the density without using the moment – generating function.

8. (a) Discuss envelope detector. Where does it find its application?
(b) Give the graphical interpretation of convolution theorem.

9 (a) Show that the effective noise temperature of n networks in cascade is given by:
Te=Te1+T e2/g1 + T e3/(g1 g2) +…….. T en/(g1 g2………gn-1)
(b) What do you mean by noise figure? How do we determine it experimentally?

DIGITAL ELECTRONICS B.Tech EC 3rd Semester 2005

B.Tech. 3rd Semester,5001
Max Marks 60

Note:- This paper consist of three Sections Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from Secion B and any two questions from Section C.

Section-A Marks:20
(10 *2 =20)

1.(a) Application of ASCII ,Excess-3 and grey codes.
(b) Differentiate between combinational and sequential circuits.
(c) the advantages of edge triggered flip-flops
(d) How subtraction of 4-bit no. is performed by addition?
(e) If two inputs are to be used for a 4 input NAND gate, discuss the options avalable with the unused inputs.
(f) A/D accuracy and resolution
(g) Fan in, Fan out, propagation relay terms related to logic gates.
(h) Special features of content addressable memories.
(i) Advantages and disadvantages of synchronous over asynchronous counters.
(j) Conversion of 100.55(10) into binary, octal codes.

Section-B Marks : 5 Each
(5 * 4=20)

2. Draw the circuit of a 3 to 8 decoder and explain its operation. How this can be used as a DEMUX.
3. Find the complement of the boolean function and reduce it to a minimum number of literals :
4. Draw the circuit of a negative edge triggered J-K flip flop with d.c. pre-set and d.c. clear options using S-R flip flops
and explin its truth table.
5. Draw and discuss the circuit of a dual scope A/D convertor.
6. Draw the circuit of a 3- input TTL totem pole NAND gate and explain its operation.

Section-C Marks:10 Each
(10 *2 =20)

7.(a) Mention the various A/D converters. Discus the comparison of advantages and disadvantages of each of these.
(b) Simple using Q-M method:
X(A,B,C,D)= SIGMA(0,1,2,8,10,11,14,15).
8.(a) Draw the circuit of Ecl gate and explain its operation.
(b) Discuss the comparison of the important characteristics of the various IC logic families.
9.(a) Draw the circuit of a BJT RAM cell and explain its operation
(b) Draw the circuit of a 4-bit shift register and explain its operation.


EC 202 B Tech 4th Sem May 2007



(1) Section A is compulsory
(2) Attempt 2 Questions from Section B
(3) Attempt 2 Questions from Section C

Section A
( 10 x 2 =20)
1. What is an amplifier?
2. What is Miller effect?
3. Define the unit decibel for expressing (i) voltage (ii) current and (iii) power.
4. While defining the cutoff frequencies of an amplifier, why do we take 70.7% of the mid-band gain.
5. How does a signal generator differ from an ordinary oscillator?
6. Although a class-B single ended power amplifier has high efficiency, yet it is less used in practical circuits. Explain why?
7. Explain in brief the function of a tank circuit in a tuned-voltage amplifier.
8. State what will happen to the voltage gain of an amplifier if the bypass capacitor is open circuited.
9. State the factors to be considered while designing a biasing circuit for a good transistor voltage amplifier.
10. A multistage amplifier consists of two stages. The voltage gain of the stages are 30 and 80. Calculate the overall voltage gain in dB.

Section B
( 4 x 5 =20)

2. Explain in detail the effect of temperature on zener diode.

3. Explain the concept of feed back

4. State and explain at leas one typical application of each type of coupling.

5. Draw and design a zener voltage regulator circuit to provide output of 12 V for a maximum load current of 0.5 A, when the input voltage variation is 15 to 18 V

6. Draw and explain the working of a push pull amplifier circuit.

Section C
( 2 x 10 =20)

7. (a) Explain types of negative feedback in transistor circuits.
(b) The parameters of a crystal oscillator equivalent circuit are Ls= 0.8 H, Cs= 0.08 pf, Rs=5 kohm and Cp= 1.0 pf. Determine the series and parallel resonance frequencies.

8. Draw the circuit of a common emitter transistor configuration and give its h-parameter model. Find out its voltage gain and current gain taking into account the source resistance.

9. Draw and explain the circuit of Wien bridge oscillator. Derive the expression for frequency of oscillation. Will oscillation take place if the bridge is balanced? Explain.


EC 202 4th Sem May 2005

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C. Assume any missing data

1.(10 *2=20)

1. Draw the high frequency equivalent circuit of CE transition.
2. Why does RC coupling give constant gain over mid-frequency range?
3. Explain the difference between a voltage and power amplifier.
4. What is crossover distortion? Explain in brief.
5. Show that maximum collector efficiency of class a transformer coupled power amplifier is 50%.
6. Why is negative feedback employed in high gain amplifiers?
7. What are practical applications of emitter follower?
8. Why is crystal oscillator used in radio transmitter?
9. Why is –ve feedback provided in Wein-bridge oscillator?
10. How does zener diode maintain constant voltage across load in the breakdown region?

Section B Marks 5 each
(5 *4=20)
2. Explain hybrid pi CE transistor model in detail.

3. Explain the push-pull amplifier circuit in detail with a neat diagram.

4. The gain and distortion of an amplifier are 150 and 5% respectively without feedback. If the stage has 10% of its output voltage applied as negative feedback, find the distortion of the amplifier with feedback.

5. A transformer coupling is used in the final stage of a multistage amplifier. If the output impedance of transistor is 1 k O, find the turn ratio of the transformer so that maximum power is transferred to the load.

6. Explain a current shunt feedback circuit and perform a suitable analysis.

Section C Marks 10 each
(10 * 2=20)
7. What do you understand by class A, Class B and class C power amplifier? Define and explain the following terms as applied to power amplifiers:
(a) Collector efficiency
(b) Distortion
(c) Power dissipation capability

8 (a) A zener regulator has Vz=15V.The input voltage may vary from 22 V to 40 V and load current from 20 to 100 mA. To hold load voltage constant under all conditions, what should be the value of series resistance?
(b) Explain the working of a Colpitts oscillator with a neat diagram.

9. (a) Derive an expression for the gain of negative voltage feedback amplifier.
(b) A multistage amplifier consists of three stages. The voltage gain of stages are 60, 100 and 160 Calculate the overall


EC 307 5th Sem May 2005

Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C.
Make necessary assumptions wherever required.

Section A Marks 2 each

(a) What precautions must be taken when using a sampling oscilloscope?
(b) What are the advantages of dual trace over dual beam for multiple-trace oscilloscopes?
(c) What is Harmonic Distortion?
(d) What is the dynamic range of a spectrum analyser with a third-order intercept point of +25 dBm and a noise level of -85 dBm?
(e) What are the important functions performed by instrument transformers?
(f) Why is sensitivity of the a.c. scales of a multimeter less than the d.c. section?
(g) What is strain gauge? Name four resistance materials for use in wire and foil gauges.
(h) Compare LED and LCD in respect of:

(i) construction materials
(ii) construction principle

(i) What are the advantages and disadvantages of piezoelectric transducer?
(j) What are the different methods of data transmission?

Section B Marks 5 each

2. Describe with diagrams the construction of an LVDT and explain its working principle.

3. How does the digital storage oscilloscope differ from the conventional storage oscilloscope using a storage cathode ray tube? What are the advantages of each?

4. Compute the value of self-capacitance of a coil when the following measurements were made. At frequency f1= 2 MHz the tuning capacitor is set at 450 p.f. When the frequency is increased to 5 MHz, the tuning capacitor is tuned at 60 p.f.

5. If a digitizing oscilloscope is to have a 6-bit resolution in both the horizontal and vertical axes and is to display transients at a rate of 1 ms per division for a display of 10 divisions, what is the speed required of the input A/D converter?

6. Provide a comparison between hydraulic and pneumatic transmission and give applications of each. Suggest other methods of transmission along with their advantages over these two methods.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. What are the typical operating and performance characteristics of digital voltmeters? How are digital voltmeters classified? Give the block diagram of a staircase-ramp digital voltmeter and explain its working.

8. (a) What is gauge factor? A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor of 2 is fastened to a member which is subjected to a strain of 1 x 10-6. If the original resistance value of the gauge is 130, calculate the change in resistance.
(b) Give the functional block diagram of the heterodyning wave analyzer and explain its working.

9. explain the working of an X-Y recorder with the help of a diagram. What are the important features of this instrument?


4th Semester (CS 252) DEC 2006
Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Instructions to Candidate:
(1) Section A is compulsory
(2) Attempt any 2 questions from section B
(3) Attempt any 2 questions from section C

Section A
I (10 * 2=20)

1. What is a manipulator? Why do we need it?
2. What is the advantage of using streams for I/O operations in C++?
3. What is name mangling?
4. What is the difference between by passing argument by value to that of reference?
5. What is the advantage of contiguous memory allocation in arrays?
6. I a and b are tow arrays of the same type, can the statement a=b work?
7. How is structure passed to a function?
8. How is memory allocated to structure variables?
9. What is null pointer?
10. Can we write a[i] as i[a]?

Section B (5 * 4=20)

II Explain the following with examples:

1. setbase
2. setfill().

III What is the difference between actual and formal arguments? Explain the relationship between them.
IV What is an array of characters? Where are they used?
V What is a structure? How can the structure be nested?

Section C (10 * 2=20)

VI What is void* pointer? What is its use?
VII What is operator overloading? Explain binary operator overloading.
VIII What is inheritance? How it is implemented? Distinguish between public and private inheritance.
IX What are virtual functions and pure virtual functions? Where are they used. Explain.


EC 203 3rd Sem May 2005

Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C

Section A

1.(10 * 2=20)

(a) Why the 3-dB frequency for current gain not same as fH for voltage gain?
(b) What is base width modulation in transistors?
(c) What is alpha cut off frequency, fa?
(d) What is thermal runway?
(e) What is phase shift distortion and frequency distortion?
(f) Why is capacitive coupling used to connect a signal source to an amplifier?
(g) Sketch a two input NOR gate and verify that it satisfies the Boolean NOR equation.
(h) Hoe FET is used as voltage variable resistor?
(i) What is the order of magnitude of each resistance in hybrid-p transistor model?
(j) What are the advantages of Hartley oscillator over Collpitt oscillator?

Section B Marks 5 each
(5 *4=20)

2. Discuss the effect of cascading on the gain and bandwidth of multistage amplifier quantitatively.

3. What are the four basic requirements of an audio frequency range harmonic oscillator that is to provide a flow distortion sinusoidal output? Explain each.

4. Explain push-pull circuit using transistors having complementary symmetry.

5. Draw and explain the small signal equivalent circuit for an emitter follower stage at high frequencies.

6. To an amplifier of 60 dB gain, a negative feedback with b = 0.05 is applied. What would be the change in overall gain of the feedback amplifier, if the internal amplifier is subjected to a gain reduction of 12%?

Section C Marks 10 each
(10 * 2=20)

7. Explain origin of cross-over distortion. Show that maximum conversion efficiency of the idealized class B push-pull circuit is 78.5%.

8. Prove that in n stage amplifier with non-interfacing stages, the resultant upper 3 dB frequency fH* equals to fH v(21/n-1), where fH is upper 3 dB frequency for each stage.

9. Draw the electrical model of a piezoelectric crystal. Sketch the reactance vs. frequency function. Over what portion of the reactance curve do we desire oscillations to take place when the crystal is used as a part of sinusoidal oscillator? Explain.


ME 402 8th Sem May 2005
Max marks 60
Max time 3 hours

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from section B and two from Section C.

Section A Marks 2 each

1.(a) What is audiometer?
(b) Define sound power (Lw)
(c) What is ISO 14001
(d) Define humidity. What instrument is used to measure humidity?
(e) What is Candela?(f) What is the safe dress for machinist?
(g) How should long steel bar stock be carried in the shop?
(h) Write about the hazards identification techniques.
(i) Why is it dangerous to run a machine from which the guards have been removed?
(j) Name the statutory bodies which are viewing safety seriously in India. (10 * 2=20)

Section B Marks 5 each

2. What are industrial wastes? Discuss the treatment, disposal and control of industrial wastes.

3. Discuss the noise isolation and noise absorption techniques used in the manufacturing industries.

4. What are the main factors to be considered in the planning o ventilation system for industries?

5. How can heat expose be controlled in industries?

6. Discuss the design factors of light installation for automobile industries. (5 * 4=20)

Section C Marks 10 each

7. Define environment aspects, environment impact, ENS audits, environment objective, environmental target, prevention of pollution.

8. (a) Discuss about industrial accidents, their nature, types and causes.
(b) How can you assess the cost of industrial accident and what steps you will take to prevent accident in industries?

9. (a) Discuss about the Industrial Safety Regulation Act (Factory Act) in detail.
(b) What will be the sound pressure level in decibel if r.m.s. SPL is 5 N/m3 (10 * 2=20)


ME 306 B. Tech 6/7th Sem May 2005
Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 hours

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C

Section A Marks 2 each

1. (10 * 2 =20)

1. Define the terms Gross head and Net or Effective head.
2. List the advantages of Kaplan turbine over Francis turbine.
3. List down the functions of a draft tube.
4. What is meant by scale effect?
5. List down some advantages of centrifugal pumps over displacement pumps.
6. What do you understand by specific speed of a centrifugal pump?
7. Explain the term negative slip as referred to reciprocating pumps.
8. List down the functions of air vessels.
9. Differentiate between hydraulic accumulator and hydraulic intensifier.
10. Define the term Net Positive Suction Head.

Section B Marks 5 each
(5 * 4=20)

2. A jet strikes tangentially a smooth curved vane moving in the same direction as the jet, and the jet gets reversed in the direction. Show that the maximum efficiency is slightly less than 60 percent.

3. Obtain an expression for the specific speed of a hydraulic turbine and explain in brief its significance.

4. The following data relate to a Pelton wheel:
Head = 72 m, speed of wheel = 240 r.p.m., shaft power of the wheel = 115 kW, speed ratio = 0.45, coefficient of velocity = 0.98, overall efficiency = 85%.
Design the Pelton wheel.

5. A reaction turbine works at 450 r.p.m. under a head of 120 m. Its diameter at inlet is 1.2 m and the flow area is 0.4 m2. The angles made by absolute and relative velocities at inlet are 20o and 60o respectively with the tangential velocity. Determine:
(a) the volume flow rate
(b) the power developed, and
(c) the hydraulic efficiency.

6. A centrifugal pump rotating at 1500 r.p.m. delivers 0.2 m3/s at a head of 15 m. Calculate the specific speed of the pump and the power input. Assume overall efficiency of the pump is 0.68.
If this pump were to operate at 900 r.p.m., what would be the head, discharge and power required for homologus conditions? Assume overall efficiency remains unchanged at new r.p.m.

Section C Marks 10 each
(10 * 2=20)

7. Explain with neat sketch, the construction and working of an air lift pump. Mention its advantages.

8. (a) Show from the first principles that work saved in a single-acting reciprocation pump, by fitting an air vessel is 84.8 per cent.
(b) A single acting reciprocating pump operating at 120 r.p.m. has a piston diameter of 200 mm and stroke of 300 mm. The suction and delivery heads are 4 m and 20 m respectively. If the efficiency of both suction and delivery stroke is 75 per cent, determine the power required by the pump.

9. (a) What is cavitation? How can it be avoided in reaction turbines?
(b) A jet of water having a velocity of 40 m/s strikes a curved vane, which is moving with a velocity of 20 m/s. The jet makes an angle of 30 o with the direction of motion of vane at inlet and leaves at an angle of 90o to the direction of motion of vane at outlet. Determine the vane angles at inlet and outlet so that the water enters and eaves the vane without shock.


ME 304 6th Sem
May 2005

Max Marks 60

Max Time 3 Hours

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions each carrying 5 marks from section B and any two each carrying 10 marks from section C.

Section A (10 x 2 = 20)

(a) Enumerate important refrigeration applications
(b) State merits of an air refrigeration system.
(c) Show the vapour compression cycle as a T-S diagram when the vapour is dry and saturated at the end of compression.
(d) What is the importance of hydrogen in Electolux refrigerator?
(e) What is the function of flash intercooler provided in a compound vapour compression refrigeration system?
(f) State the applications of vortex tube.
(g) How are refrigerants classified?
(h) Define Relative humidity and Specific humidity.
(i) How are the fans classified?
(j) List the components of cooling load estimate

Section B (4 x 5 = 20)

II An air refrigerator works between pressure limits of 1 and 4 bar. The temperature of the air entering the compressor is 15 oC and entering the expansion cylinder is 30 oC.
The expansion follows the law PV1.25 = constant.
Take for air cp = 1 kJ/kg K and Cv = 0.7 kJ/kg K. Find the following:
(a) COP of the refrigerating cycle.
(b) If the air in circulation through the system is 25 kg/ min, find the refrigeration capacity of the system.

III State the effect and causes of moisture in refrigerant of refrigeration system. How can it be removed from the system?

IV Describe briefly the method used for liquefaction of hydrogen.

V 20 m3 of air per minute at 30 oC and 60% RH is cooled to 22 oC DBT maintaining specific humidity constant. Find the following:
(a) Heat removed from air
(b) R.H. of cooled air
(c) WBT of the cooled air.
Take air pressure = 1 bar.

VI Discuss briefly a split air- conditioner.

Section C (2 x 10 = 20)

VII (a) What is sub cooling and super heating? Explain with the help of a diagram. Why is super heating considered to be good in certain cases?
(b) A refrigerating unit is working between 40 oC and –10 oC. The load on the unit is 5 tons. Find:
(i) COP of the system
(ii) Power required to run system.
Assume that the refrigerant is dry and saturated vapour leaving the evaporator and compression is isentropic. The refrigerant used is MHz.
If the temperature of the refrigerant required in the evaporator is –20 oC, then, find the change in COP of the system and the power required.

VIII Draw a neat diagram of lithium bromide water absorption system and explain its working. List the major field application of this system.

IX The following are the design data for an air conditioning system prepared for a restaurant:
Outdoor condition = 34o DBT and 28 oDBT
Indoor condition = 24o DBT and 50 RH
Solar heat gain through walls roof and floor = 4.4 kW
Occupants = 25
Sensible heat gain per person = 85 W
Latent heat gain per person =105 W
Internal lighting load = 15 lamps of 100 watts capacity each
plus 10 fluorescent fixtures of 80 W each.
Sensible heat gain from other sources = 11.6 kW
Infiltration air = 14 m3 /min
Coil by ass factor = 0.15
If the return and outdoor are adiabatically mixed in the ratio 3:2 (by bass) and then passed through the conditioner: determine:
(a) dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature of supply air
(b) apparatus, dew point
(c) capacity of the air –conditioning plant.


ME 304 6th Sem Dec 2006


Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions each carrying 5 marks from section B and any two each carrying 10 marks from section C.

Section A (10 x 2 = 20)


1. Write any five applications of refrigeration.
2. Differentiate between Heat engine and Heat pump.
3. Compare open cycle and closed cycle refrigeration systems.
4. What is the effect of subcooling and superheating on refrigeration work in VCR systems?
5. Draw a sketch of Electolux refrigeration system.
6. Write applications of steam jet refrigeration and mention its limitations.
7. Define RSHF and Bypass factor.
8. Differentiate between Ventilation load and Infiltration load.
9. Differentiate between split A/C system and window A/C system.
10. Write the advantages of cooling towers used in refrigeration industry.

Section B (4 x 5 = 20)

II A Bell-Coleman cycle works between 1 bar and 6 bar pressure limits. The compression and expansion indices are 1.25 and 1.3 respectively. Obtain COP and tonnage of the unit for an air flow rate of 0.5 kg/sec. Neglect clearance volume and take temperatures at the beginning of compression and expansion to be 7 oC and 37 oC respectively.

III A 5 ton Freon-12 refrigeration plant has saturated suction temperature of -5 oC. The condensation takes place at 30 oC and there is no undercooling of refrigerant liquid. Assuming isentropic compression find (i) COP (ii) Mass flow rate of refrigerant (iii) power required to drive the compressor in kW. Take the following properties of Freon-12 and Cpv= 0.615 kJ/kgK.
P T hf hg sg
(bar) (oC) (kJ/kgK) (kJ/kgK) (kJ/kg)
8 30 130 265 1.55
3 -5 -- 250 1.57

IV Draw a neat sketch of Linde and Claude cycles and compare both cycles in their construction.

V Explain with a neat sketch the working of thermostatic expansion valve.

VI What are the various leak detection systems used in refrigeration industry and explain any one.

Section C (2 x 10 = 20)

(a) Compare VAR system with VCR system.
(b) Explain with a neat sketch the working of NH3-H2O VAR system. Write its applications.

VIII Write the Detailed procedure foe estimating the cooling load of a computer centre with 100 capacity.

(a) Explain the importance o comfort chart.
(b) Distinguish between water inter cooling and Flash inter cooling of a compound compression system.

EXPERT SYSTEMS B. Tech 6th Sem 2005

B. Tech 6th Sem
Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions each carrying 5 marks from section B and any two each carrying 10 marks from section C.

Section A (10 x 2 = 20)


1. What do you mean by inferencing?
2. Define natural language processing.
3. Define an expert system.
4. List four major potential users of expert systems.
5. Define knowledge engineering.
6. What is the difference between documented and undocumented knowledge?
7. List major difficulties of knowledge acquisition from multiple users.
8. List major knowledge representation methods.
9. What are basic parts of a production rule?
10. Define backward chaining and contrast it with forward chaining.

Section B (4 x 5 = 20)

2. What kind of mistakes might ES make and why? Why is it easier to correct mistakes in ES than conventional programs?

3. Define and contrast shallow knowledge and deep knowledge.

4. Give an example that illustrates the difference between propositional logic and predicate calculus.

5. Provide an example that shows how a semantic network can depict inheritance.

6. Describe how appropriate reasoning is performed using fuzzy rules.

Section C (2 x 10 = 20)

7. Describe the major tasks performed by knowledge engineers. What are the major advantages of acquiring knowledge through a knowledge engineer? Knowledge engineers are compared to system analysts, why?

8. (a) Construct a semantic network for the following situation: Mini is a robin; it lives in a nest, which is on a pine tree in Ms. Wang’s backyard. Robins are birds; They can fly and they have wings. They are an endangered species and they are protected by Government regulations.
(b) Discuss briefly the features of MYCIN.

9. (a) What are Scripts? Prepare a script about shopping in a supermarket.
(b) Compare and contrast neural computing with conventional computing.


IT 308 6th Sem
Max marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from section B and two from Section C.

Section A Marks 2 each

(a) List hardware requirements for Win-NT
(b) Which all software can be installed on Win-NT Server? Give any five.
(c) What is the difference between a server and a client?
(d) What is Ethernet used for?
(e) Give main advantage of FDDI.
(f) What is meant by remote access services?
(g) What is Telnet used for?
(h) What is primary domain controller?
(i) How is work group configured on Win-NT server?
(j) Which operating system was launched after Win-NT?

Section B Marks 5 each

2. What are the role and responsibilities of network administration?

3. What kind of licensing is required by Win-NT server and clients?

4. What is a network protocol? Explain the network model used by win-NT?

5. How are backups maintained by Win-NT server?

6. analyze the performance of FDDI and Ethernet.

Section C Marks 10 each

7. Explain the Win-NT Service and Security Architecture.

8 (a) Discuss the ATM technologies for networks.
(b) Which file system is used in Win-NT? Explain.

9 (a) What is meant by distributed file system?
(b) Explain how groups and users are managed in win-NT.


May 2005
(B. Tech 6th SEMESTER)

Time 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 60

Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and any two questions from Section C.

Section- A Marks: 2 each (10 * 2=20)


1. Given a net mask of 255, 222, 25, 0. How many subnets are available?
2. What are the advantages of doing reassembly at the ultimate destination instead of doing it after the datagram travels across one network?
3. What is the need for pre-assigned UDP port numbers?
4. What is the special case in which a host connected to an Ethernet need not use ARP or an ARP cache before transmitting an IP datagram?
5. How is a TCP socket different from a UDP socket?
6. How Silly Window Syndrome is avoided in TCP?
7. What is RED?
8. What kind of information is there in routing tables?
9. What is maximum size of TCP header?
10. What is encapsulation?

Section- B Marks: 5 each (5 * 4 =20)

2. Explain in detail the working of ARP. Specify a special case where thee is no need of ARP for communication.

3. Explain the structure of ICMP message format. Should ICMP error message contain a time stamp that specify when they are sent? Explain.

4. What do you mean by CIDR? Explain with the help of suitable example.

5. List and explain briefly the application layer protocols of TCP/IP.

6. Why a node in a network has got both a MAC address and an IP address? Explain.

Section- C Marks: 10 each (10 * 2=20)

7. Compare the individual fields of IPv4 with IPv6 header. Account for the functionality provided by each IPv4 field by showing how the same functionality is provided in IPv6?

8. Describe in detail the working of each layer of the TCP/IP layered structure? In which way the flow control at network interface differ from flow control at transport layer?

9. Write short notes on any two of the following:

2. UDP
3. DNS.


IT 504 B.Tech 5th Sem May 2005
Max Marks 60
Max Time 3 Hours

Note: Section A is compulsory. Attempt any Four questions from Section B and two from Section C. Assume any missing data.

Section A Marks 2 each (10 *2=20)

(a) What is transaction security?
(b) List the six business models for electronic commerce on the internet.
(c) What components of an electronic-commerce system always reside with the end customer?
(d) Name the two standards through which EDI messages are secured over the internet.
(e) What are the potential benefits of integrating an electronic-commerce system with other business processes?
(f) List some of the Electronic Commerce Issues and Payment methods.
(g) What are the common motivations for attacks on networks?
(h) What are two of the benefits of hosting an electronic-commerce system for a service provider?
(i) What is Electronic Cash?
(j) List any four methods of electronic methods of payment of goods purchased over the world-wide-web.

Section B Marks 5 each (5*4=20)

2. Discuss the applications and benefits of E-commerce in Banking.

3. Discuss in detail the Electronic Data Interchange operational benefits.

4. What do you mean by Electronic Retailing? Explain with the help of suitable example.

5. Explain the use of supply chain application software in implementation of E-commerce.

6. List and explain the different types of E-commerce.

Section C Marks 10 each (10 *2=20)

7. Give a detailed description of Firewalls, its uses, configuration and disadvantages.

8. What is E-business? Explain clearly with the help of a case study.

9. Write short notes on any two of the following:
(a) Encryption Methods.
(b) HTML
(c) Credit Cards.


B. Tech 8th Sem
Max Marks 60
Time 3 hours

Question No. 1 carrying 20 marks is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B and any two from Section C.

Section A 2 marks each

(a) What is the difference between MOV AX, 1000H AND MOV AX, [1000H]?
(b) How many interrupts does 80 x 86 support?
(c) List the important features of 80286.
(d) What makes the Pentium so different from other 80 x 86 CPUS?
(e) Why are the flags so important in a control type programme?
(f) What are the opcode, data type and operand in this instruction MOV AH, 7?
(g) Register AX, BX and CX contain the respective values 2000H, 1000H and 3000H? What is the result of CMPXCHG BX, CX?
(h) List three major features of RISC based computers.
(i) Give the comparison of power PC versus Pentium.
(j) List four applications of advanced microprocessor.

Section B 5 marks each

2. Explain the characteristics of RISC based computers.

3. Draw the block diagram of power PC 601 and briefly explain the function of each.

4. What are different methods of transmitting data using 8051?

5. Describe how the real mode operation of an 80286 is different from protected mode operation.

6. Write a program to add seven data bytes stored in memory locations starting at 2060H and display the count how many data bytes have been added at respective output port.


10h, 21H, 9H, 24H, 37H, 19H, 01H.

Section C 10 marks each

7. Discuss the application of microprocessor for controlling the sped of a stepper motor.

8. What are the features of 403GA development system? Explain the functional detail of 403GA development system.

9. Write short notes on any two of the following:
(a) RISC architecture.
(b) Application of microprocessor.
(c) Pentium super space.


B.Tech (Computer Science)


Time: 03 Hours
Maximum Marks: 60

Instruction to Candidates:

1) Section - A is compulsory.
2).Attempt any Four questions from Section - B.
3) Attempt any Two questions from Section - C.

Section - A

(10 * 2=20)
a) What is software quality Assurance?
b) Does every software project need Testers?
c) What is an inspection?
d) What is software quality?
e) What is test plan?
f) What is cost benifit analysis?
g) What is Logical data?
h) What is software metrics?
i) Explain Data function?
j) What is test case?

Section - B
(5 *4=20)

Q2) What are 5 common solutions of software development problems?
Q3) Explain software life cycle?
Q4) Explain verification and validation?
Q5) What is UGL Environment? Explain briefly?
Q6) What is software management? Explain?

Section - C
(10 * 2=20)

Q7) Explain Different cost Estimation Technologies?
Q8) Explain software quality management?
Q9) Explain software Development methods?


(B.Tech 6th & 7th Semester,2122)

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks : 60

NOTE:- This paper consist of Three Sections. Section A is compulsory. Do any Four questions from
Section B and any two questions from Section C

Section-A Marks : 20
(10 * 2=20)

1(a) What is Cost Matrix?
(b) How the productivity of a programmer can be measured?
(c) What is the difference between top-down and bottom-up approach?
(d) What is the difference between Micro-and Macro-flow chart?
(e) What is a state transition diagram?
(f) What is the difference between verification and validation of a system?
(g) How case tools increase the productivity of a developer?
(h) What are the a-ß version of a software?
(i) Do you design a software when you write a program?
(j) What do you understand by software portability?

Section-B Marks:5 Each
(5 * 4=20)

2. How are the concepts of coupling and software portability related? Provide example to support your answer.
3. Develop at least five levels of abstraction for a full screen editor.
4. Develop a procedural design for an interactive user interface that quaries for basic income tax information.
Derive your own requirements.
5. What is CASE tools? How does it help in analysis phase of the software development?
6. How test data cab be constructed for different phases of software development?

Section-C Marks : 10 Each
(10 * 2=20)

7. What is a life cycle of software development? Explain the different phases of software life cycle.
8. (a) What are the various time estimations measures in project management? Explain.
(b) Explain three direct and indirect productivity and quality matrices for software documentation.
9. (a) Does the LOC measure make any sense when 4 GL language are used? Explain.
(b) What is software maintenance? How is it different from Hardware maintenance?

Postgraduate and Ph.D. Admissions 2008-2009: INDIAN INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY ROORKEE (IIT)

Postgraduate and Ph.D. Admissions 2008-2009: INDIAN INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY ROORKEE


Postgraduate & Ph.D. Admissions 2008-2009

Applications are invited from GATE qualified candidates for admission to the Post Graduate programmes leading to M.Tech/March/M.U.R.P. for the session 2008-2009. Sponsored candidates and IIT graduates without GATE are also eligible for admission. The Application Form and Information Brochure can be downloaded from Institute website from March 17, 2008 to April 17, 2008. The filled Application Form should be submitted along with a Demand Draft of Rs.400/- for General Category or Rs.200/- for SC/ST Category, drawn in favour of “Chairman, PG Admission, IIT Roorkee” payable a Roorkee, plus fee of Rs.100/- per additional department (if applied). The Application Form may also be obtained form the “Chairman, PG Admission, IIT Roorkee, ROORKEE-247667 by sending a Demand Draft of Rs.50/- drawn in favour of “Chairman, PG Admission, IIT Roorkee” payable at Roorke, along with two self addressed slips which should reach latest by April, 2008. Applications may also be submitted ON-LINE on the Institute website

LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF FILLED APPLICATION FORM (Downloaded or Obtained by written request or Printout of the On-Line Application Form as the case may be) along with Application fee plus additional fee per department, if applied, is April 17, 2008.

Applications are also invited for Ph.D. Admission for the session 2008-2009. Application Form and Information Brochure can be downloaded form the Institute website or can be obtained by sending a Demand Draft for Rs.50/- drawn in favour of “Chairman, PG Admission, IIT Roorkee” payable at Roorkee. For details please contact Assistant Registrar (PGS&R), IIT Roorkee.

For More Details Please Visit:

Admissions To B.Tech(IT), M.Tech(IT), M.Sc(IT), M.Sc(ICT),MDes,Ph.D 2008 Dhirubhai Ambani Institute of Information & Communication Technology DA IICT

Dhirubhai Ambani Institute of Information and Communication Technology (DA-IICT)
Near Indroda Circle, Gandhinagar, Gujarat, India-382007


DA-IICT, UGC recognized university, is a major educational and research institution of Reliance ADAG. The institute is inviting applications form eligible candidates for admission to the following courses starting July, 2008.


B.Tech (Information and Communication Technology)


Candidates should:
(a) Be a pass in the 10+2 or its equivalent with Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry/ Computer Science. All candidates will be required to produce the proof of having passed the qualifying examination to the Institute latest by 30 October 2008.
(b) Be born or after 01 October, 1983.
(c) Appear in AIEEE 2008 examination being conducted by CBSE on 27 April, 2008.
Submit separate application to DA-IICT in the prescribed Application Form.

Selection Process:-
Short-listed candidates will be called for counseling at DA-IICT and selection of the eligible candidates for admission will be based on the All India Rank of AIEEE 2008 (All India Engineering Entrance Examination 2008).

A limited number of seats will be offered through a separate channel called ‘Direct Admission of Foreign and NRI Students’ (DAFS) to Non Resident Indians, Foreign Nations and Persons of Indian Origin.

A candidate will have to apply in prescribed DA-IICT Application Form. The Application Form will be made available through the following channels:
1. AT the select Branches of Axis Bank (formerly UTI Bank), as given below by paying Rs.800/-.
2. Sending a Demand Draft of Rs.850/- to the Institute.
3. Apply on-line at by making an on-line payment through credit card) of Rs.800/-.


DA-IICT offers merit and merit-cum-means scholarships for B.Tech students. In each category, up to five students are awarded scholarships equivalent to full tuition fees.


1. M.Tech (Information and Communication Technology)
Eligibility: B.E./B.Tech/ M.Sc in: ICT/CS/IT/EE/ECE/I&C or equivalent

2. M.Sc
(Information Technology)
Eligibility: Graduates of any discipline as given in the website.

3. M.Sc (ICT in Agriculture and Rural Development)
Eligibility: Bachelor degree in Agriculture and allied disciplines

4. M.Des
Eligibility: 4 years Degree/ Diploma after 10+2

5. Doctor of Philosophy (Ph.D)
Eligibility: M.Tech/M.Phil/BE/B.Tech/M.Sc/MCA/MS or equivalent.

Minimum 60% at the bachelor’s level in the disciplines specified above is required.

Selection Processes: Admission is through entrance test and / or interviews. Students with excellent GATE/ CEED score may be offered direct admission to M.Tech/M.Des Programms.


(a) All application to the PG programs to be made online.
(b) The application fee is Rs.800/- (online) and Rs.1000/- in case candidates download the form and send the hardcopy. In both cases the draft needs to be sent by post.
(c) The Entrance Test for the Admission to the Masters level PG programs will be conducted at select cities.
(d) The detailed procedure is available at the Institute website.

Financial Assistantships:-

All candidates admitted to M.Tech would be eligible to get a Teaching Assistantship of Rs.7500/- per month. Candidates admitted to Ph.D program will be eligible for a stipend varying from “Rs.12000/- to Rs.25000/- per month.

Axis Bank branches for availing B.Tech Application Forms:-
AGRA (Friends Tower, Sanjay Place), AHMEDABAD (Vastrapur), ALLAHABAD (MG Marg Civil Lines). AMBALA ( JLN Marg), AMRITSAR (Court Road), BANGALORE (Jayanagar, HILAI (Superia Chowk), BHOPAL (MP Nagar) BHUBANESWAR (Stayanagar), BOKARO (Hotel Blue Diamond), CHANDIGARH (Sector 35-B), CHENNAI (Shastrinagar), CUTTACK (Dolamondai Badambadi Square), DEHRADUN (Raipur Road), DELHI (Ashok Vihar, Greater Kailash-I, Greenpark Mainmarket, Padam Singh Road Karol Bagh, Malviya Nagar) DHANBAD (Bank More), GANDHIDHAM (Sector 128), GANDHINAGAR (Sector 16), GURGAON (Sector 14), GUWAHATI (GS Road Dispur), GWALIOR (Madhavrao Scindia Marg), HISSAR (Urban Estate No.1), HYDERABAD (Jublee Hills), INDORE (Yeshwant Nivas Road), JABALPUR (Shastri Bridge Chowk), JAIPUR (Ashok Marg), JAMMU (Rail Head Complex), JAMSHEDPUR (Bistupur), JODHPUR (Chopasni Road), KANPUR (The Mall), KOCHI (Rajaji Road Ernakulum), KOLKATA (Gariahat Road Gotpark, Sector-1 Saltlake City, Muktichambers Clive), KOTA (Shopping Centre), LUCKNOW (Sikanderbagh Chaurha), LUDHIANA (The Mall), MEERUT (Boundary Road), MUMBAI (Lokhandwala Complex Andheri (W), Garden Corner Chembur, New Marinelines), NAGPUR (Sitabuldi), NOIDA (Sector 16), PATIALA (The Mall Road), PATNA (SP Verma Road), PUNE (Kothrud), RAIPUR (Jeevan Bima Marg Pandri), RAJKOT (Kalawad Road), RANCHI (Albert Ekka Chowk), ROHTAK (Delhi, Road), ROORKEE (Civil Lines), SECUNDERABAD (Rashtrapati Road), SHIMLA (Kasumpti), SRIGANGANAGAR (Jawaharnagar), SURAT (Ghod Dod Road), VADODARA (Race Course), VARANASI (Sigra), VIJAYAWADA (Denz Circle), VISAKHAPATNAM (Old Gajuwaka).


Sale of Application Material :-
Commences on : 24th March, 2008
And Closes on: 21st April, 2008

Last Date for receiving completed Application Form: 25th April 2008

Entrance test for M.Tech (ICT), M.Sc(IT) and MSc(ICT-ARD): 25th May, 2008.

For More Details Please Visit:

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